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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 02:54

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why does my narcissistic ex told me that he f*cked and sleep with other woman and then at the end says that it also happened because of me?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why do gun owners feel the need to defend themselves with deadly weapons? Can they not just talk things out like civilized people do?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why can't we send flat Earthers to space and show them the shape of Earth?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.